If 69% of the housing stock was owner-occupied by the top 2% of the population by income, then that would constitute ownership by an elite would it not?

Of course, I don't believe that there are sufficiently few houses in britain that 69% of them could be occupied by an elite, but the 69% figure alone does not give me enough information to infer that. As you point out you need more information and when that information is presented in an annoying way you have to do Bayes on it.