No, your original claim was about houses: that houses get owned by an elite. A majority of houses are owned by the people living in them. The proportion of people housed thereby wasn't in your original claim.
However, you can make some inferences from some of the other figures in the linked document, if you add some other demographic info and do Bayes on it. For example, "80 per cent of households comprising a couple with dependent children" ... "80 per cent of Indians and 70 per cent of White British people and those of Pakistani origin" ... "81 per cent of pensioner households" (were owner-occupiers). That isn't really consistent which the characterisation of home-ownership as restricted to the "elite".
Using http://www.statistics.gov.uk/downloads/theme_social/Social_Trends34/Social_Trends34.pdf p26 I get a figure that roughly 50% of households consist of couples, and p153 I get the figure that roughly 80% of couple householders (children or otherwise) are owner occupiers, so at least 40% of houses are owned by a couple who are living in that house.
no subject
david jones (from livejournal.com)2007-07-26 04:57 pm (UTC)(link)
If 69% of the housing stock was owner-occupied by the top 2% of the population by income, then that would constitute ownership by an elite would it not?
Of course, I don't believe that there are sufficiently few houses in britain that 69% of them could be occupied by an elite, but the 69% figure alone does not give me enough information to infer that. As you point out you need more information and when that information is presented in an annoying way you have to do Bayes on it.
![[personal profile]](https://www.dreamwidth.org/img/silk/identity/user.png){kind=small}
no subject
However, you can make some inferences from some of the other figures in the linked document, if you add some other demographic info and do Bayes on it. For example, "80 per cent of households comprising a couple with dependent children" ... "80 per cent of Indians and 70 per cent of White British people and those of Pakistani origin" ... "81 per cent of pensioner households" (were owner-occupiers). That isn't really consistent which the characterisation of home-ownership as restricted to the "elite".
no subject
no subject
Of course, I don't believe that there are sufficiently few houses in britain that 69% of them could be occupied by an elite, but the 69% figure alone does not give me enough information to infer that. As you point out you need more information and when that information is presented in an annoying way you have to do Bayes on it.