No, your original claim was about houses: that houses get owned by an elite. A majority of houses are owned by the people living in them. The proportion of people housed thereby wasn't in your original claim.
However, you can make some inferences from some of the other figures in the linked document, if you add some other demographic info and do Bayes on it. For example, "80 per cent of households comprising a couple with dependent children" ... "80 per cent of Indians and 70 per cent of White British people and those of Pakistani origin" ... "81 per cent of pensioner households" (were owner-occupiers). That isn't really consistent which the characterisation of home-ownership as restricted to the "elite".
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Date: 2007-07-26 04:44 pm (UTC)However, you can make some inferences from some of the other figures in the linked document, if you add some other demographic info and do Bayes on it. For example, "80 per cent of households comprising a couple with dependent children" ... "80 per cent of Indians and 70 per cent of White British people and those of Pakistani origin" ... "81 per cent of pensioner households" (were owner-occupiers). That isn't really consistent which the characterisation of home-ownership as restricted to the "elite".